Barclays' response to the 3 Standard Letters.

[faircop]

Having completed the 3 letter process with Barclays (3rd letter sent on 05 March 2012), and having received no previous response other than a letter acknowledging my "complaint", Barclays have issued the attached letter. I was kind of expecting them to come back with 'the process of which you refer does not have any basis in English law', but what about my executed agreement pursuant to the Consumer Credit Act 1974 and £1? Does anybody have any experience/advice on dealing with such a response?

What is the next step? I am due to send the Estoppel notice on 05 April 2012, do I still do that? or do I begin the invoice process as the tacit agreement should be in place now (over 10 days since I sent Letter 3)?

For information, this is regarding the repayment of my Career Development Loan, which I have been paying back up until recently when I have not been in the position (financially) to pay it and Barclays have offered no reprieve; you can't get blood out of a stone, right? Also, I feel bitter about repaying a loan when I cannot develop my career because of a financial crisis that my creditors are part to blame.

Any advice will be greatly appreciated.

f.

[adyclegg]

usual bollix!! ad bill em not invoice; don't send esstople until u av 30 days of no contact;
think thats the way 2 go; if am wrong up stairs will advise good luck pal

[faircop]

usual bollix!! ad bill em not invoice; don't send esstople until u av 30 days of no contact;
think thats the way 2 go; if am wrong up stairs will advise good luck pal

Cheers adyclegg.

f.

[guardianofwithinaolcom]

ady's iinfo is correct to my knowledge.

[faircop]

Thank you, the only thing I wonder is how to bill and not invoice?

f.

[guardianofwithinaolcom]

There is a big difference between an INVOICE and a BILL. It has been explained in other posts.
All you need to know is that when the 3 letter process, (completing tacit agreement) has completed you can 'BILL' the company if they keep pestering you. You cannot BILL them until you have them in tacit (Usually about 20-22 days depending on your method. I keep letters strictly 10 days apart, so if I post a letter on the 1st of the month, the second letter needs to be sent on the 11th of the month and then the third letter goes out on the 21st of the month. If you have no contact from the Bank or DCC for thirty days after sending the Third letter then send the estoppel. I hope this explains it enough for you faircop

[faircop]

There is a big difference between an INVOICE and a BILL. It has been explained in other posts.
All you need to know is that when the 3 letter process, (completing tacit agreement) has completed you can 'BILL' the company if they keep pestering you. You cannot BILL them until you have them in tacit (Usually about 20-22 days depending on your method. I keep letters strictly 10 days apart, so if I post a letter on the 1st of the month, the second letter needs to be sent on the 11th of the month and then the third letter goes out on the 21st of the month. If you have no contact from the Bank or DCC for thirty days after sending the Third letter then send the estoppel. I hope this explains it enough for you faircop

Yes, I think so. Because I sent the third letter on 05 March (recorded) and Barclays responded on 26th March, without really addressing any of the points raised, I have them in tacit because it has been over 10 days since I sent Standard Letter 3. So I bill them as per the charge structure mentioned in the standard letters. I will look at how to bill them now.

Thank you again.

f.

[guardianofwithinaolcom]

You are welcome. If you use the Template from on here make sure you change invoice to bill twice. At the top and further down the page

[faircop]

You are welcome. If you use the Template from on here make sure you change invoice to bill twice. At the top and further down the page

Do you think that the attached is adequate/appropriate to bill Barclays?

f.

[ceylon]

number one should be 3 times what they were chasing you for