"It is a term of your agreement with the Bank that the full amount outstanding on your account is repayable, with interest, on demand at any time. Pursuant to that term, the Bank hereby terminates your agreement, including any overdraft or reserve facilities, with effect from 19/11/10 and makes demand for full payment."
.... so, firstly, I'd like to see that so-called agreement, cos I doubt they still have it after 12 years when the account was opened and I certainly haven't signed any further agreement when increasing the overdraft. But, what I like about their words is that they state that they have terminated the agreement - which surely means that I am no longer liable under it, even if it was enforceable before. Any thoughts on this? Could it really be that easy? Can they make demand for payment on an agreement that they have just terminated? Yes it might well be a term of the agreement that they can demand repayment of the overdraft at any time, but if that agreement has been terminated then surely I can just tell them to piss off - "sorry, we no longer have an agreement, you terminated it... piss off!"
Are you living in fear of Banks and Debt Collectors letters and phone calls? Do you worry about Bailiffs visiting your home? 

